I ask this because after, say, 3-6 months of using naltrexone and then stopping, what happens if you need opioid pain relief for something like, say, surgery? With the gradually upregulated opioid receptors, would pain management with morphine or fentanyl in normal doses actually cause a life-threatening overdose? Or do the opioid receptors return to their normal states after a few days of stopping the naltrexone? This is potentially a scary scenario that would be helpful to have an answer for.
I'm at the end of my third week on the Method and so far have noticed no progress (yes, I realize it's much too soon). I had a tough time convincing my doc to prescribe the stuff and he finally agreed to 30 days, providing I come in for liver function tests before the Rx runs out, which I will do. I hope that if my liver enzymes are in the normal range as in the past, and that he will understand that the process takes months and continue to prescribe. He can't seem to grasp the paradoxical mechanisms underlying the theory which was new to him. "If it is so successful, why hasn't it become common practice given the alcohol problems in this country?" he said. I don't want to overwhelm him with material since that would be off-putting, but next time I see him, I might bring a brief synopsis of Dr. Eskada's book, or perhaps a printout from an NIAA publication or perhaps the recent NYT article by Jane Brody. Any other suggestions?
Finally, the matter of using naltrexone when taking benzos. I happen to have essential tremor of the head and neck, together with some cervical dystonia. The pulling on the muscles and neck tension can be painful at times while the bobbing and shaking of my head is embarrassing in social situation. The only things that help this condition in my case (and I've tried the gamut of choices suggested by neurologists, short of having electrodes implanted in my brain) are GABAergic substances. Propanolol, mysoline, baclofen have zoned me out in the past. Currently, 5-10 mg. diazepam (prescribed by my doctor) with occasional "holidays", plus 300-600 mg of gabapentin, as needed are partially helpful. I've been on that regimen since the 1990s. However, the most effective though temporary "cure" for the tremor, unfortunately, is alcohol. Two or three glasses of wine in the evening, and the neurological condition vanishes like magic--only to reappear next day. (A well documented effect of alcohol upon essential tremor). But I've been drinking much more than three units at night, escalating alarmingly over the past several years to over 100 units a week. (I gather one unit is 5 oz. of wine?) Thus it appears to me that I'm both a GABA AND an Opioid type drinker--GABA for a real palliative issue and the Opioid for subsequent pleasure--the latter of which most likely causes me to lose control of my intake. Despite the provso that the method won't work for people on benzos, since my drinking is for two entirely different purposes, medical plus pleasure, I do wonder if removing the pleasure part via the method would help me control my intake to normal levels just needed to control the essential tremor despite also drinking for GABAergic effects. Or am I barking up the wrong tree?
Mike
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