That's a really good question and it's something I have often wondered about myself. According to wiki:
Quote:
The blockade of opioid receptors is the basis behind its action in the management of opioid dependence—it reversibly blocks or attenuates the effects of opioids.
Its use in alcohol (ethanol) dependence has been studied and has been shown to be effective [1]. Its mechanism of action in this indication is not fully understood, but as an opioid-receptor antagonist it's likely to be due[citation needed] to the modulation of the dopaminergic mesolimbic pathway which is hypothesised to be a major center of the reward associated with addiction (being one of the primary centers for risk-reward analysis in the brain, and a tertiary "pleasure center") that all major drugs of abuse are believed to activate.
In fact everywhere you read about Naltrexone it says that it is an opioid antagonist which works by blocking the opioid receptors in the brain and therefore blocking the effects of opioids or alcohol. So as I understand it, one would need to "use" so that the opioid receptors can be blocked, if you're not drinking/using, what is Naltrexone blocking? I can't find anything which explains that, which might be why I often see things like "the mechanism is not fully understood"
I think there are two possible explanations, 1 is placebo, and the other is what EL says about how we feel when we take Nal, we are less interested in alcohol when we drink with it, but if it is taken without drinking/using, there must be a feeling of general disinterest in everything, or it's blocking the effects of other endorphin releasing activities, which I find worrying, would daily use of Nal with abstinence not lead to depression??
Curi